10.
Church history beginning with the age of the apostles, furnishes an
irresistible argument in favor of infant baptism.
For
more than 1500 years after the birth of Christ, there was not a single group of
professing Christians who opposed infant baptism on grounds even remotely
resembling the arguments of modern Baptists. I know that many Baptists will
wish to disagree with this statement, but it is quite easily demonstrated from
history.
About
200 years after Christ, Tertullian is the first we encounter who wrote against
infant baptism. Yet even that needs to be clarified. Tertullian clearly
acknowledged the prevalence of the practice and indeed recommends that infant
be baptized if it is certain that they are ill and thus likely to die in
infancy. What was his argument? The second we inspect his logic, we see that is
bears no resemblance to contemporary Baptist argument, which means they have no
predecessor for their doctrine in the 2nd century. Tertullian
adopted the superstitious view that baptism washed away all past sins, hence it
was dangerous to be baptized young, since one was likely to commit future sins
which could not be washed away by baptism because baptism is not repeatable.
Nothing in this superstitious view supports the system of modern Baptists.
The
next time we encounter the rejection of infant baptism, it is in the 12th
century in the company of a small group in France under the leadership of Peter
de Bruis. They were an insignificant group, all things considered. Their
doctrine was that infants should not be baptized because they are incapable of
salvation. They taught that no one could be saved who did not “work out their
salvation with fear and trembling.” Infants are incapable of this, hence are
incapable of salvation. Surely our Baptist friends are not willing to claim
these people are their predecessors? The issue never comes up again until the
16th century. Hence there is nothing even remotely resembling the
contemporary Baptist doctrine of baptism, for over 1500 years from the birth
of Christ.
I
could easily produce a litany of quotes from numerous church Fathers defending
both the practice and antiquity of infant baptism. This would be beyond the
scope of what I wish to address in this series of posts. I have done so
elsewhere anyway. The only further comment I would wish to add with reference
to the numerous patristic citations which could easily be mustered is that it
appears to me to be inconceivable that in three centuries the practice of
infant baptism could arise in direct contradiction to the practice of the
apostles without so much as a whisper of opposition from any quarter. But if
our Baptist friends are right, this is exactly what must have happened.
That
the church should have transitioned from the practice of adult-only baptism to
constant and universal infant baptism, while the transition passed completely
undetected, is an idea which cannot be imagined by any impartial thinker.
Let's
reassess the history for a second: Origen, Cyprian, and Chrysostom tell us that
the baptism of infants was the universal practice of the church in their
respective times and places. Moreover from the writings of Augustine and his
antagonist Pelagius we are informed that they never heard of anyone who claimed
to be a Christian, either orthodox or heretic, who did not both affirm and
practice infant baptism. Now let's be frank: To postulate in the teeth of such
overwhelming evidence that the practice of infant baptism crept in, as an
unwarranted innovation, between the time of the Apostles and their own day, and
that without the slightest notice of a change is ludicrous. Anyone who can
believe this must be prepared to sacrifice all historical evidence on the altar
of blind prejudice.
It
is sometimes asserted by Baptist historians that the Waldenses baptized only
adult believers. But this is demonstrably false on several counts. First, the
only association between adult-only baptism and the Waldenses comes from Roman
Catholic opponents of Peter de Bruis who falsely labeled him such in order to
condemn both in one fell swoop, - to kill two birds with one stone, so to
speak. Secondly, and most importantly, we know that when the Reformation began,
the Waldenses submitted to the Reformers samples of their creeds and
confessions for doctrinal review. The Reformers found nothing objectionable.
The Reformers never had anything bad to say about the Waldenses, but conversely
they never had anything good to say about the Anabaptists. The conclusion is
clear. Had the Waldenses been Anabaptists, the Reformers would have castigated
them sharply for it.
But
this is not all. If the doctrine of our Baptist friends is correct; that is, if
infant baptism be a corruption and a nullity; then it inevitably follows that
the true sacrament of baptism was lost for over 1500 years, - from the
apostolic era until the 16th century. For, as we have seen, there
was no representative in Church history of the Baptist dogma of adult-only
baptism until the appearance of the Anabaptists in the 16th century.
But can such an idea be admitted?
Let's be perfectly
clear, there was no Christian remotely deserving of the name during that whole
1500+ year period that did not baptize infants. On Baptist principles, one is
forced to conclude that God had no church on earth during this entire period.
How does this square with God's promises? If during that long tract of time
there was no true baptism in the church, and if none but baptized persons are
capable of administering true baptism to others, the consequence is simple: There
is no true baptism now in the world! Can anyone seriously believe this? Are we
to suppose the Christ, as Head of the Church has allowed one of the great signs
and seals of His covenant to perish from the earth? This is no true baptism
today, on these grounds without recourse to the miraculous. The only way to
evade this logic is to assert that baptism can be lawfully administered by
those who are not baptized. If the Baptist position be true, this is the actual
case.